Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 11:34
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If a narcissist can't feel remorse, can they ever feel regret for an evil act after going to rehab?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Did you ever accidentally have sex with your brother/sister in India?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.